Will the real Jesus step forward from behind the mists of
church tradition which have shrouded him in obscurity?
In post-biblical tradition he arrives, avatar-like, from the
sky, from a previous existence. This is the stuff of legend, but it has been
forced into John’s gospel by improper capitalizing of logos (Word) which should
be “word,” the expression of the One God (John 1:1).
The word “pre-existence” is thrown around, but what content
does the word have? We all understand that if you sign up for insurance and you
already have a disease, you have a “pre-existing” condition. But how does a
person, a self, preexist? What does this mean? If Jesus preexists, what is the
object of the verb preexist here? Jesus preexists what? Himself? He preexists
himself? How can you do that? How can you be before you are? Let the exponents
of “preexistence” tell us what they really mean, and in so doing, they may find
themselves at a loss for clear understanding. This will lead to a change of
mind.
There is a perfectly good word “preexist” in the Greek even
of the NT but it is never, ever referred to Jesus!
What really is meant by this foggy term “preexist”? Is it
that there is a person (according to the theory the Son of God or God the Son)
who really never gets begotten (brought into existence) in the womb of his
mother? How can he really begin to exist (since to be begotten means to begin
to exist), if he already exists? So then, if the Son of God antedates his own
conception and begetting, you are being invited by the Church to believe the
impossible! Luke and Matthew say Jesus begins to exist in the womb, not that he
already existed! Can you begin to exist if you already exist?
Thus on the theory of preexistence the Son does not have a
beginning of existence (i.e. is not brought into existence = begotten in Mary),
because on the theory he already exists.
So what hides behind this fog language is really a theory of
“transformation” from one form of existence to another. The Son of God would be
in transit from a non-earthly existence to another form of existence. But if he
is already in existence before he exists, it seems that his coming into
existence = being begotten, is in fact imaginary, a non-event. You can’t begin
to exist if you already exist.
A friend, urging the Trinity, said, “Remember your Church
creed: ‘begotten not made.’” But a much better procedure would be: remember the
Scripture: begotten and made. To beget is a form of creation, making,
procreation. Luke, working out of Isaiah 9:6, spelled all this out — astute
doctor and historian that he was, privileged, talented and erudite enough to
write more of the NT than any other writer!
In Isaiah 9:6 the Hebrew text says, “To us a child has been
begotten, to us a son has been given.” The well-recognized rules of Hebrew
parallelism tell us that the two bolded statements reinforce each other. They
say the same thing twice for emphasis and clarity. The being begotten of the
child is equivalent exactly to the gift of a Son.
The “being begotten” (passive form) has no subject and we
naturally infer that this is what grammarians call a divine passive, i.e. God
is the subject. God is the one who caused the child to be begotten, brought
into existence, and God is the one who gave this Son. This is exactly “God
loved the world in this way: that He gave His uniquely begotten Son” (John
3:16).
Luke unpacked this in greater detail, working out of this
grand prophecy of the Messiah, who is to be begotten, though no human father is
mentioned (Isa. 9:5-6). That is beautifully clarified in Luke 1:32-25. God is
the procreator, begetter of the Son by miracle in Mary and “for that reason
exactly [and for no other] the Son so procreated, to be begotten, will be the
Son of God” (Luke 1:35). Of course! The story is entirely coherent if you know
your Old Testament prophecies. Of course, too, the text in Isaiah 7:14 spoke of
a sign by which a virgin would conceive and bear a child and call him “with us
is God” (Immanuel). The child indeed would embody the activity of God who
worked in and through him. “God was IN Christ reconciling the world to Himself”
(2 Cor. 5:19). Not “God WAS Christ,” making, horror of horrors, two GODs.
Psalm 2 had made a similar, spectacular prophecy when it
spoke of an oracle directed to a Son of whom it would be said: “You are my Son.
Today I have begotten you” = brought you into existence = caused you to begin
to exist. Nothing at all about the Son being in existence or alive before he
began to exist (was caused to exist)!
The people of Israel would have been severely deceived if
they were meant to gather from these sublime, beautiful prophecies that there
was a pre-human Son who underwent a transformation into a human Son. After all,
what had Israel been taught to look forward to as Messiah? When they protested
that they did not want to hear the voice of YHVH literally again, God granted
their request.
In place of God’s literal voice, they were promised, “I will
raise up a prophet like Moses originating from the family of Israel” (see Deut.
18:15-19). All quite straightforward and clear, as prophecies need to be if
they are to have a coherent and recognizable fulfillment.
Many have noted that the Church has had a tendency to be
anti-Semitic. How true! What is the greatest act of anti-Semitism? It is surely
to reject the God of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob and of the Jewish Jesus and replace
him with a strange triune God. This would be the greatest possible slur against
the Jewish people. “Salvation is from the Jews,” Jesus observed (John 4:22),
and surely the Jewish definition of God would be the only valid one, the one
guarded by the Jews “to whom the oracles of God were entrusted” (Rom. 3:2).
Jesus agreed entirely with the Jewish, Hebrew view of God as One Person (Deut.
6:4; Mark 12:29).
Is it credible that the Jews, as custodians of and faithful
adherents to the unitary monotheistic creed of Israel, could have sanctioned a
switch to a Triune God? Jesus certainly never envisaged such a monumental
shift. He is on record as agreeing wholeheartedly with a fellow Jew that the
greatest of all commands is “Listen, Israel, the LORD our GOD is one LORD.” How
could this be a three-in-one Lord? Could the Jew so have understood Jesus, when
he echoed back the words of the Master: “You have well said that HE is one and there
is no other than HE” (He-three?). But are we listening? Or has our cherished
tradition made us deaf to the words of Jesus? Was that not the constant
complaint of Jesus, that it is possible to be “in error, not knowing the
Scriptures…” ?
Every historian of the Bible knows that Jesus here confirmed
the One God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as the only true God. In John 17:3, not
contradicting the rest of John of course, Jesus uttered these stupendous and
clear words: “This is the life of the age to come, that they come to know you
[Father], the only one who is true God.”
This, we submit, is a very plain unitary monotheistic
definition of God, following the whole of Israel’s heritage and history. And
Jesus, who asserted that “salvation is from the Jews,” confessed and instructed
us to believe in that one God of Israel, his own God.
Shocking indeed is the subsequent history, as a new
definition of God replaced Jesus’ own definition. The church fathers displayed
a lamentable anti-semitism when they admitted that in defining who God is they
“rejected the Jewish error” (Jesus’ view of God as unitary!) and put in its
place an “improved” version of who God is. Church father Gregory of Nyssa, one
of the architects of the detail of the later Trinitarianism, explained that in
place of the Jewish error they preferred a midway or mean between the two
extremes. One extreme was the Jewish error (a unitarian view of God — Jesus’
view!) and the other was the tritheism or polytheism of the pagan world. The
Trinity was touted as being the ideal between the two positions, rejecting the
“coldness” of the strict monotheism of Israel and favoring the “warmth” of
paganism with its concept of God as community. In fact it was a blatant
compromise with paganism, and a clever one!
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